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Re: [Faraday's law ?]




To Dear Everybody:


How are you ? Thanks for Dr. Meeker and Dr. Gregory:

ip = (M/L) isrc

If I understand correctly, these inductance (M and L) is a function of frequency and logical conclusion to calculate M and L is to use numerical method ? (My structure is on the order of micrometers. When frequency is high, L is smaller than low freq. value and R is larger than low freq.) When I calculated with just low frequency approximation, the induced current at the passive loop was much smaller.

Thank you very much for your kind consideration.
Sincerely,
SE-HO YOU




--- In femm@xxxx, "you se-ho" <sxy28@xxxx> wrote: > Let's say there is one thin conductor whose current > is time-varying and there is conductor loop whose > conductivity is high (i.e good conductor), then > Faraday's law says there is induced emf and current > in the passive loop. Current is time-varying (let's > say as always sinusoid), to get the emf voltage, we > need to calculate d(flux)/dt. Therefore in the > expression there is always frequency term. HERE IS > MY QUESTION. Does it mean induced (magnitude of) > current is linear function of source frequency ? I > think answer is NO because if it is true, the induced > current can be higher than source current. If > somebody knows anything, I would like to here any > explanation. Books, papers Ok, too.

Consider a case where you've got a "source" loop where the current is
controlled so that you have a constant current amplitude regardless of
frequency, and a "passive" closed loop. Assume that any skin effects
in the "passive" loop are negligible for the frequency of interest.
Then, you can write an electric circuit equation for the passive loop
that looks like:

L dip/dt - M disrc/dt + R ip = 0

where ip is the passive loop current and isrc is the source current.
L is the self-inductance of the passive loop, M is the mutual
inductance between the source and passive loops, and R is the
resistance of the passive loop. The (M disrc/dt) part is the voltage
that is induced in the loop--the induced _voltage_ is proportional to
frequency because the derivative. However, the impedance of the
passive loop increases with frequency, balancing out the increase in
voltage with respect to frequency and limiting the current that flows
in the passive loop.

At "high enough" frequencies, we could neglect the resistance all
together, because this impedance becomes very small in comparison to
the inductance at high frequencies. Then, we just have:

L dip/dt - M disrc/dt = 0

which we could integrate to yield:

L ip - M isrc = 0

and re-arrange to get:

ip = (M/L) isrc

so that the current in the passive loop goes to a constant level as
the frequency increases. The "physical" interpretation is that as you
increase the frequency, the flux produced by the current in the
passive coil becomes equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to
the flux that links the loop from the "source" loop, so the net flux
linking the passive loop goes to zero.

Dave Meeker
--
http://members.aol.com/_ht_a/dcm3c



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