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[Faraday's law ?]


To Dear Everybody:

How are you? it seems like that I always ask something not contributing anying. Feeling guilty, I would like to ask
onemore and promise as time goes, I will contribute my knowledge
to this very useful group.

While I try to model crosstalk thing (and waiting Cornelius tutorial,I requested tutorial to him in person thinking to send e-mail to group is not good), I would like to understand more basics.

Let's say there is one thin conductor whose current is time-varying and there is conductor loop whose conductivity is high (i.e good conductor),
then Faraday's law says there is induced emf and current in the passive loop. Current is time-varying (let's say as always sinusoid), to get the emf voltage, we need to calculate d(flux)/dt. Therefore in the expression there is always frequency term. HERE IS MY QUESTION. Does it mean induced (magnitude of) current is linear function of source frequency ? I think answer is NO because if it is true, the induced current can be higher than source current. If somebody knows anything, I would like to here any explanation. Books, papers Ok, too.

Thank you very much for your kind consideration.
Sincerely,
SE-HO YOU



SE-HO: I think what you call cross-talk is what I call mutual (inductance)
so it will be covered in the summary. However, the general process
is that you have to calculate the coupling coefficient (can be done
with FEMM), then calculate the induced current in the second coil
by hand. It can not be done automatically in a 2D model. For a final
picture of the fields emanating from the 2 coils you have to put
a current source on either coil, using the values you calculated
by hand.

RUKMAL: sri I did not come back to your last post, too busy but havent
forgotten


a nice weekend to everyone, regards,
Cornelius




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